At least, that's what the Aramaic English New Testament says.
"My El! My El! [Lemana shabakthani] Why have you spared me?"

with this footnote:
“Y'shua was not necessarily quoting Psalm 22, although the imagery of the Psalm is certainly intended by Matthew. Greek is translated Eli, Eli lama sabacthani, but Peshitta and Psalm 22 read: Eli, Eli lama azbatani. Many bibles read “forsaken” from which came a false teaching that the Father left Y'shua destitute (Marcionite thinking). Isaiah 53:4 indicates that “we” reckoned him smitten of Elohim, but it is not YHWH who tortured His own son, but men motivated by religious tradition. Psalm 22 references those who scorned Y'shua for his Faith in YHWH and called him a worm (detested), but Father YHWH does not forsake the righteous, nor does he at any time “forsake” His own Son – see Psalm 9:9,10; 37:25, 71:11, Isaiah 49:14-16. Y'shua says “Eli” (my El). He is in great physical pain after being brutally tortured; those around Him were confused about whether He was saying “Eli-yah” or “Eliyahu”. If Hebrew eyewitnesses were not sure of what He was saying, it shouldn't be a surprise that Greek transliteration was also wrong, putting “lama sabacthani” rather than “lemana shabakthani”. Perhaps the reason Y'shua says “why are you sparing me” is because He has proven His commitment by laying down His life and has already endured about six hours of the execution! So, it's not a matter of being “forsaken” but that He literally means, “Father, I'm ready, why can't We finish this?” In a matter of moments from saying this, He dies, which fully supports this interpretation. See Appendix My El! My El!...”

(This was excerpted from my post about the AENT. Thought it was relevant here, as those interested in this topic might miss the other post. Sorry for the duplication, and you won't hurt my feelings if you delete it, but hope you understand my reasons.)

An interesting point of view, and amazing how similar sounding, but different meaning, the two Greek phrases are...
Thoughts?

First of all, for the "translators" of the Aramaic New Testament, (to whom I am being cut and dry with, and expressing my anger in this post - not you, RWY :) ) the Greek isn't translated "Eli, Eli lama sabacthani" - that's NOT Greek! That is a Greek transliteration of the Aramaic words that Yahushua spoke on the upright stake.

In fact, that isn't an English transliteration of the Greek transliteration of the words that Matthew notes. That would actually be the following: Eli, Eli, lema shabaqthani.

Matthew then translates this Aramaic phrase for us, as Robski has quoted, with it meaning "My God, My God, why, for what reason and for what purpose have You forsaken and abandoned, deserted and left Me?" That is the meaning of the Greek words θΕ μου ΘΕ μου ινατι με εγκατελιπες - THE* mou, THE mou, inati me egkatelipes.

You want to blame them for saying that the phrase meant "forsaken"? Blame Matthew for saying it meant that in Greek!

Second of all, if azbatani means "spare" in both Aramaic and Hebrew, then why does the root of that - 'azab - mean desolate, forsaken, and abandoned. Craig actually dedicates an ENTIRE book of Yada Yahweh discussing this very word!

If it means ""to spare" then how do they translate Genesis 44:22? - We said to my master, "The boy cannot spare['azab] his father, for if he should spare['azab] his father, his father would die! As you can see, translating it as spare makes absolutely no sense what so ever.

They'd also have to explain Gen 44:22; Num 10:30; Ruth 1:16; II Kgs 4:30, II Kgs 8:6; Jer 18:14; 25:38, Gen 39:12–13; 50:8; Ex 9:21.


As the ANT constantly claims that it's other's who promote false information, I'm sorry, but they're just as bad, and are therefore hypocrites.

Seriously, this "Aramaic supremacy" thing is getting old really fast.

No worries :)



hmm, I really don't see that from what they've stated. They state, and I quote:



First of all, that is not a "translation" - a translation translates the words from one language to another, ie, the Hebrew 'azab becomes/is translated into the English abandon. The Greek would actually be translated "My God, My God, why have You forsaken me?". The Eli, Eli lama sabacthani the AENT has in it's footnotes is a transliteration, which means they've sought to replicate the equivalent Greek letters into English ones. I pointed out that they haven't done so, because to transliterate the Greek letters into their equivalent English ones, they would be as I did so above: Eli, Eli, lema shabaqthani. That is what it has in the Greek Matthew. AENT have something different to what is written in the Greek Matthew.

Mistake/error #1 (#2 actually, as Yahushua was quoting Psalm 22)

This also explains you thinking that the AENT was saying "His words were either, 'Eli, Eli lama sabacthani', which means 'My El, My El, why have you forsaken me?' ", when it certainly wasn't. They have stated that the Greek Matthew says "Lama sabacthani" when it doesn't. And actually, Greek doesn't even have a "c" in their alphabet! So he certainly didn't say "sabacthani".

Continuing on, you think that the AENT was stating that the Greek Matthew says was saying the above,



When again, it wasn't. The AENT states that the Greek Matthew says 'Eli, Eli lama sabacthani', when actually, it says Eli, Eli lema shabaqthani.

This actually looks a lot more similar to what you think the AENT was saying: Eli, Eli lema shabaqthani compared to Eli, Eli lemana shabakthani. The Only difference is they have an extra -na added on to lema, and we have K for Q.



Right, what's happened, is that Yahushua quoted Psalm 22:1 in Aramaic on the upright stake. Now, Matthew has transliterated the Aramaic letters of the words Yahushua spoke into corresponding Greek ones. They aren't "Greek words" they are just Greek letters transliterating Aramaic words. Kind of like if I transliterate the following phrase from English into Greek letters:

This is me transliterating English to Greek
θις ις με τρανσλιτερατινγ Ενγλισ το Γρεεκ

So, the question is, what does "shabaqthani" mean in Aramaic? Well, first of all, it's actually Shabaq - thani, which actually means "forsaken [shabaq], you me [thani]" hence "you forsaken me" in English

Every Dictionary, Lexicon, Etymological dictionary states that shabaq means "to leave, forsake, abandon".

But anyway, the AENT states that the Peshitta actually doesn't say "shabaqthani" but "azabtani", as, and I quote:



And then goes on to try and say that "azabtani" means "spare".

Again, this is a compound, Azab - tani. "Azab (forsake "spare") - tani/thani (you me)"

Now, checking 'azab, I find no dictionary/lexicon/etymological dictionary that states that azab means "to spare" in how the AENT says it does. It means abandonment, and as I linked to before, is the word used by Craig Winn for his Hosea discussion - Abandonment/Azab.

The AENT footnote is full of so much misinformation, error, and down-right irrational explanations, I just can't fathom why they've done it so badly.